Roman Catholicism, is it the Fullest Christian Faith?

Let me first begin by saying that I do not believe it is possible to know the answer to the above question in an absolute sense.   That is,  I do not believe it can be "proven" absolutely, only practically.  Having said that, proof practical is very useful, similar to the level of proof we accept for many other vital issues with which we deal in life and a level of confidence which can only be exceeded by the perfect knowledge possessed by the transcendent Triune God of the Universe.  It is also possible that the answer to this question can at times be given by personal (special) revelation from God himself.  It is not this possibility to which I address my comments in this essay.  Rather, I will address some questions which appear to require consideration.  These questions deal primarily with Reason, not Faith as the terms are usually employed.  In the final analysis, one accepts the "truth" of their Christian denomination on the basis of faith as much if not more than on the basis of reason.

First, is Roman Catholicism the oldest  (original) Christian Faith?

A review of the testimony from the General and Ecumenical Church Councils, the totality of the writings of the Church Fathers, the evidence provided by the New Testament, (the canon of which is not disputed), and those of the Apostles, (The Didache) would strongly suggest that the Christian Church presently visible in Rome, is in fact the descendent of the Church established by Jesus Christ.  This issue has been extensively debated by all "3" branches of the Christian Faith, with detailed and excellent arguments being made on all sides.  In the final analysis, the data must be interpreted by each person or individual Christian.  Too often however, an a priori commitment to one denomination or the other remains a stumbling block to honest reveiw of the data.  One problem plagues those who refute this hypothesis, that is if Christ established His church in roughly 30 AD, is it reasonable to conclude that the first 1000-1500  years of it's existence was illigitimate?  It seems implausible that God would allow such a development given the fact that He clearly states that even "the gates of Hell will not prevail against" His church. If one assumes that the most reliable version of a "story" is the version closest to the event, it is unreasonable to assume that Christ's intent was not achieved until 1054 AD or the 16th century for that matter.  This seems intuitively obvious to anyone not burdened by an a priori commitment to an alternative doctrinal position.